CompTIA · 220-1101
CompTIA A+ Core 1 validates foundational IT skills in hardware, networking, mobile devices, virtualization, and cloud computing. It is the first of two exams required to earn the CompTIA A+ certification for IT support professionals.
Questions
700
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
675/900
Difficulty
FoundationalLast Updated
Mar 2026
Use this 220-1101 practice exam to prepare for CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) with realistic questions, detailed explanations, and focused study modes. The practice bank includes 700 questions for CompTIA 220-1101, so you can review the exam steadily instead of relying on one long cram session.
As you practice, pay extra attention to recurring topics such as Mobile Devices, Networking, Hardware, Virtualization and Cloud Computing, and Hardware and Network Troubleshooting. Start with short sessions to identify weak areas, then move into timed quizzes once your accuracy is consistent.
The explanations are especially useful when you want to connect exam wording to the responsibilities and scenarios described in the official certification guidance. Use the free preview first, then unlock the full question bank when you are ready to build a complete study routine.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) is the first exam in the two-part A+ certification series, validating foundational IT skills essential for entry-level technical support roles. This exam measures competency in hardware components, networking protocols and configuration, mobile device management, virtualization concepts, and troubleshooting methodologies. Core 1 focuses on the infrastructure and hardware foundations that support modern IT environments, while its companion exam (Core 2) addresses operating systems, security, and operational procedures. The certification is widely recognized by enterprises and government agencies, including DoD 8140 approval for technical support specialist and cybersecurity infrastructure roles.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 is designed for IT professionals pursuing foundational certification in technical support and IT operations. Target roles include IT support specialists, help desk technicians, technical support specialists, junior system administrators, and cyber defense infrastructure support specialists. Candidates typically have 12 months of hands-on experience in IT support roles, though the exam is accessible to those with formal training and self-study. This certification serves as an entry point into IT careers for individuals transitioning from other fields or those seeking to validate self-taught technical knowledge.
CompTIA recommends 12 months of hands-on experience in an IT support specialist job role before attempting the exam, though this is not a formal requirement. Candidates should have foundational knowledge of hardware components, basic networking concepts, and familiarity with Windows operating systems. Practical experience troubleshooting computers, printers, mobile devices, and SOHO networks is strongly beneficial. Those without direct experience can prepare through formal training, online courses, CompTIA study guides, and hands-on lab environments that simulate real-world IT support scenarios.
Core 1 features a maximum of 90 questions delivered in 90 minutes, with a passing score of 675 out of 900 points. Question types include multiple-choice (single answer and multiple response), drag-and-drop, and performance-based questions that simulate real IT troubleshooting tasks. The exam is administered through Pearson VUE testing centers both online and in-person. Performance-based questions require candidates to perform actual tasks such as installing hardware, configuring network settings, or troubleshooting systems within a virtual environment. The exam does not include unscored survey questions.
CompTIA A+ certification significantly enhances career prospects in IT support and technical roles. A+ certified professionals earn an average of $63,909 annually in the United States, with salaries ranging from $49,000 to over $101,000 depending on experience, location, and industry. The certification is required by numerous federal government agencies including DoD and Department of Homeland Security for specific pay grades and positions, creating substantial job opportunities in the government/defense sector which pays 20-30% above average. The Bureau of Labor Statistics projects approximately 50,500 annual job openings in technical support roles, making A+ certification a valuable credential for entering this market. Holding A+ certification demonstrates employer-valued technical competency and serves as a stepping stone to advanced certifications including Network+, Security+, and specialized cybersecurity credentials that can increase earning potential by $10,000-$15,000 or more.
5 sample questions with answers and explanations. Start a practice session to test yourself across all 700 questions.
Preview — answers shown1. A technician at Northwind Traders is assembling a high-performance workstation for a video editing team. The selected graphics card has a TDP of 450W and requires a single 16-pin power connector. The technician is selecting a compatible power supply unit. Which power connector and specification correctly matches the GPU's requirements? (Select one!)
Explanation
The 12VHPWR 16-pin connector consists of 12 power pins arranged in two rows and 4 smaller sense pins that communicate the maximum allowable power draw between the GPU and PSU. It supports tiered power delivery of 150W, 300W, 450W, or 600W depending on sense pin configuration, making it capable of powering a 450W GPU through a single cable. Two 8-pin PCIe connectors deliver 300W total (150W each), which is insufficient for a 450W GPU, and adapter-based solutions introduce safety risks. The 24-pin ATX and 4+4 pin EPS12V connectors supply power to the motherboard and CPU respectively, not to graphics cards. Three 6-pin PCIe connectors provide only 225W total (75W each), far below the 450W requirement, and the claimed 225W per connector is incorrect since each 6-pin connector delivers only 75W.
2. A network administrator at Fabrikam is investigating email spoofing issues. External parties have been sending emails that appear to come from Fabrikam's domain. The administrator wants to implement a DNS-based solution that specifies which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of Fabrikam's domain by listing allowed IP addresses. Which DNS record type should the administrator configure? (Select one!)
Explanation
A TXT record containing a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) entry is the correct solution because SPF authenticates email servers based on their IP addresses, specifying which servers are authorized to send mail on behalf of a domain. Receiving mail servers check the SPF record to verify that inbound email from a domain comes from a host authorized by that domain's administrators. An MX record identifies the mail server that receives email for a domain but does not prevent spoofing. DKIM uses public-private key cryptographic signatures to verify email authenticity rather than IP-based authorization. A CNAME record creates an alias for a hostname and has no role in email authentication or anti-spoofing.
3. A technician at Contoso is configuring BIOS/UEFI settings on a new workstation that will run Windows 11. The IT security policy requires full disk encryption with BitLocker and protection against boot-level malware. Which combination of UEFI settings must the technician enable to meet these requirements? (Select two!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
Secure Boot and TPM 2.0 are both required for the stated security requirements. Secure Boot validates the digital signatures of boot loaders and operating system components before allowing them to execute, which protects against rootkits and boot-level malware. TPM 2.0 provides hardware-based secure storage for BitLocker encryption keys, ensuring that the full disk encryption cannot be bypassed by moving the drive to another system. Windows 11 specifically requires TPM 2.0 as a minimum system requirement. Enabling Legacy/CSM boot mode would disable Secure Boot functionality, as Secure Boot is exclusively a UEFI feature. Wake-on-LAN enables remote power-on but has no security function. PXE boot allows network booting for deployment purposes but does not address encryption or malware protection requirements.
4. A technician at Adatum is troubleshooting a desktop workstation where the user reports hearing a repetitive clicking noise from inside the case, and the system occasionally freezes and displays a blue screen of death. The technician checks the SMART status of the hard drive and sees multiple reallocated sector warnings. Which action should the technician take FIRST? (Select one!)
Explanation
The technician should back up the user's data immediately. Repetitive clicking from a hard drive combined with SMART reallocated sector warnings and system freezes indicate imminent mechanical failure of the hard drive. The clicking sound is typically caused by the read/write heads repeatedly failing to position correctly over the platters. SMART reallocated sectors mean the drive firmware has already moved data from damaged sectors to spare areas, and a high count indicates accelerating degradation. Data preservation is the highest priority before the drive becomes completely unreadable. Running chkdsk or defragmenting could accelerate the failure by placing additional stress on a failing drive. Replacing the SATA cable would not address mechanical drive failure symptoms confirmed by SMART diagnostics.
5. A systems administrator at Litware is configuring a new file server and needs to set up a storage array that can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures while still providing usable storage capacity. The administrator has six identical drives available. Which RAID level meets these requirements? (Select one!)
Explanation
RAID 6 uses double distributed parity, which allows the array to tolerate up to two simultaneous drive failures while continuing to operate. With six drives, RAID 6 provides usable capacity equal to four drives. RAID 0 provides no fault tolerance at all since it uses striping without any parity or mirroring. RAID 1 mirrors data between two drives and can only tolerate the loss of one drive in a mirrored pair. RAID 5 uses single distributed parity and can only tolerate one drive failure. If a second drive fails during a RAID 5 rebuild, all data is lost.
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