CompTIA • 220-1102
CompTIA A+ Core 2 validates foundational IT support skills in operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. It is the second of two exams required to earn the CompTIA A+ certification, the industry-standard credential for entry-level IT support roles.
Questions
700
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
700/900
Difficulty
FoundationalLast Updated
Mar 2026
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) is the second exam required to earn the CompTIA A+ certification, the industry standard credential for entry-level IT professionals. This exam validates essential skills in operating systems (Windows, macOS, Linux), security practices, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. Core 2 focuses on the software and management aspects of IT support, complementing Core 1's hardware and networking emphasis. Together, these two exams demonstrate foundational competency in supporting end-users and maintaining IT infrastructure, making this certification a critical credential for anyone pursuing a career as an IT support specialist or help desk technician.
The CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam targets entry-level IT professionals seeking to validate their foundational support skills. Ideal candidates include help desk technicians, IT support specialists, junior system administrators, and field service technicians with hands-on experience in IT support roles. CompTIA recommends candidates have 12 months of hands-on experience in an IT support specialist role before attempting the exam. This certification is also valuable for IT career changers, individuals transitioning from related technical fields, and professionals looking to advance into network administration, systems administration, or information security roles.
CompTIA recommends 12 months of hands-on experience working as an IT support specialist or in a similar IT support role before attempting the Core 2 exam. While there are no formal prerequisites to register for the exam, CompTIA suggests candidates should be comfortable with troubleshooting common PC hardware and software issues. Many organizations recommend passing Core 1 (220-1101) first, as the two exams together provide comprehensive coverage of foundational IT competencies. Candidates should be familiar with major operating systems, basic security concepts, and IT service management principles to maximize their chances of success.
CompTIA A+ Core 2 is delivered as a 90-minute computer-based exam with a maximum of 90 questions. The exam includes multiple-choice questions (both single and multiple response), drag-and-drop questions, and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. Candidates must achieve a minimum score of 700 on a scale of 100-900 to pass. The exam can be taken online or at Pearson VUE testing centers. There may be unscored survey questions included as CompTIA gathers data for exam development, but these do not affect the final score.
The CompTIA A+ certification, earned by passing both Core 1 and Core 2, is recognized as the industry-standard entry-level credential for IT support professionals and is required or preferred by many employers and government agencies, including the U.S. Department of Defense. A+ certified professionals typically earn between $49,000 and $80,500 annually, with top earners exceeding $100,000 depending on experience, location, and specialization. The certification serves as an excellent launching pad for career advancement, with A+ holders frequently advancing to junior system administrator, network administrator, IT technician specialist, or information security positions. Stacking additional certifications such as CompTIA Network+ or Security+ alongside A+ significantly increases market value, with potential salary increases of $10,000-$15,000 annually when combined with cloud certifications.
5 sample questions with correct answers and explanations. Start a practice session to test yourself across all 700 questions.
1. A systems administrator at Adatum Corp. is deploying a new backup strategy for 200 workstations containing critical financial data. The company requires that backups complete as quickly as possible each night, use minimal storage space, but the administrator accepts that restoring data may take longer if a disaster occurs. Which of the following backup types BEST meets these requirements? (Select one!)
Explanation
Incremental backups back up only the data that has changed since the last backup of any type, making them the fastest to complete and requiring the least storage space. This meets the administrator's primary requirements of speed and minimal storage. The trade-off is that restoring from incremental backups requires the last full backup plus every incremental backup in sequence, making the restore process slower and more complex, which the administrator has accepted. Full backups every night would be the slowest and consume the most storage. Differential backups are faster than full but slower than incremental because they capture all changes since the last full backup, growing larger each day. Synthetic full backups reduce production system impact but still require significant storage similar to a full backup.
2. A technician at Tailspin Toys needs to verify the integrity of a downloaded driver package before installing it on a production server. The hardware manufacturer has published a SHA-256 hash value on their website. Which of the following steps should the technician perform to verify the download? (Select one!)
Explanation
Hash verification involves generating the SHA-256 hash of the downloaded file using a tool like certutil or PowerShell's Get-FileHash and comparing it character-by-character against the hash value published by the manufacturer. If the hashes match, the file has not been modified or corrupted during download. Opening the file in a text editor would not reveal a hash value, and binary files would display as unreadable characters. Antivirus scanning checks for known malware signatures but cannot verify that a file is the exact version published by the manufacturer. Checking file size is insufficient because a tampered file could be engineered to have the same file size as the original.
3. A technician at Northwind Traders is troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation where multiple applications crash with missing DLL errors after a recent Windows Update. The technician has already attempted to run sfc /scannow, but the tool reports that it found corrupt files and could not repair them. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? (Select one!)
Explanation
When SFC (System File Checker) cannot repair corrupt files, the next step is to run DISM /Online /Cleanup-Image /RestoreHealth. DISM repairs the Windows component store (WinSxS folder) that SFC depends on to restore corrupted system files. After DISM completes successfully, running SFC /scannow again should then be able to repair the previously unrepairable files. Performing a clean installation is a last resort after less destructive recovery options have been exhausted. Running chkdsk /r checks for physical disk errors and bad sectors, which would not resolve Windows component store corruption. Restoring from a full backup is more disruptive than necessary when DISM can potentially resolve the issue without data loss.
4. A technician at Adatum Corp. is responding to a ransomware attack on a workstation in the accounting department. The screen displays a ransom note demanding cryptocurrency payment to decrypt the files. The technician has confirmed the malware is active. Following CompTIA's malware removal process, which step should the technician take IMMEDIATELY after investigating and verifying the malware infection? (Select one!)
Explanation
According to CompTIA's 10-step malware removal process, the second step after investigating and verifying the malware is to quarantine the infected system. This means disconnecting the workstation from the network by disabling Ethernet, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth connections to prevent the malware from spreading to other systems or communicating with command-and-control servers. For ransomware specifically, network isolation also prevents additional files on network shares from being encrypted. Disabling System Restore is step 3, which comes after quarantine. Educating the end user is always the last step (step 10) in the process. Running antivirus scans occurs later in the process at step 6 after the system has been quarantined, System Restore disabled, and anti-malware definitions updated.
5. A company's IT department at Fabrikam Inc. needs to implement a solution that allows employees to authenticate once and then access multiple corporate applications including email, CRM, and file storage without re-entering credentials. Which technology should the IT department implement? (Select one!)
Explanation
Single sign-on (SSO) allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications and services without needing to re-enter credentials for each one. This improves user experience and reduces password fatigue while centralizing authentication management. Multifactor authentication adds additional verification factors to the login process but does not eliminate the need to authenticate to each application separately. Privileged access management secures and monitors elevated administrative access but does not provide seamless access across multiple standard applications. Access control lists define which users or groups can access specific resources but do not provide a unified authentication experience.
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