CompTIA • CV0-004
CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills needed to deploy, secure, manage, and optimize cloud infrastructure across multiple platforms. It is a vendor-neutral certification designed for system administrators and cloud engineers with 2–3 years of hands-on experience.
Questions
700
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
750/900
Difficulty
ProfessionalLast Updated
Mar 2026
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) is a vendor-neutral professional certification that validates the skills required to deploy, secure, manage, and optimize cloud infrastructure across multiple platforms including public, private, and hybrid cloud environments. The certification demonstrates competency in cloud architecture design, infrastructure deployment, security implementation, operational management, troubleshooting, and DevOps fundamentals. This CV0-004 version, launched in September 2024, is designed for IT professionals who work with cloud solutions daily and need to prove their ability to design cloud architectures for performance and cost efficiency, manage workload operations while maintaining compliance, and implement automation and orchestration concepts.
CompTIA Cloud+ is designed for systems administrators and cloud engineers with 2–3 years of hands-on industry experience. The certification is suitable for IT professionals seeking to advance into cloud-focused roles, including cloud specialists, cloud engineers, cloud systems analysts, cloud support associates, cloud project managers, data center managers, and cloud consultants. It appeals to both those looking to transition into cloud careers from traditional IT roles and experienced cloud professionals seeking vendor-neutral credential validation that applies across AWS, Azure, Google Cloud, and other platforms.
CompTIA recommends a minimum of 2–3 years of hands-on experience as a systems administrator or cloud engineer before attempting the CV0-004 exam. Candidates should possess knowledge equivalent to CompTIA Network+ and CompTIA Server+ certifications or equivalent practical experience with networking, server administration, and foundational cloud concepts. Familiarity with cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), basic networking concepts, and experience with at least one major cloud platform is highly beneficial.
The CV0-004 exam contains a maximum of 90 questions, including both multiple-choice and performance-based questions, to be completed within a 90-minute time limit. The exam is delivered online and scores are calculated on a scale of 100–900, with a passing score of 750 required for certification. The performance-based questions test practical, hands-on skills beyond theoretical knowledge. The exam is available in English and Japanese, with the current version effective from September 24, 2024, and an estimated retirement date of 2027.
CompTIA Cloud+ certification opens doors to diverse cloud-focused IT careers including cloud engineer, cloud consultant, cloud architect, systems administrator, and cloud specialist roles. Cloud+ certified professionals earn competitive salaries, with cloud engineers averaging $94,000 annually, cloud consultants around $102,000, and cloud architects approximately $128,000. Professionals with advanced cloud certifications like Cloud+ alongside security credentials (such as CySA+) can see 30–50% or higher wage increases. The vendor-neutral nature of CompTIA Cloud+ makes the certification particularly valuable, as it demonstrates skills applicable across AWS, Azure, Google Cloud, and other platforms, greatly increasing job market flexibility. Globally recognized and valued by employers across industries, Cloud+ certification significantly enhances job prospects and salary negotiating power, particularly when combined with related CompTIA certifications like Network+ or Server+.
5 sample questions with correct answers and explanations. Start a practice session to test yourself across all 700 questions.
1. A cloud administrator at Litware Inc. discovers that a critical security vulnerability has been identified in the operating system used by their cloud VMs. The OS vendor has announced that this version has reached End of Support (EOS) and no patches will be released. What is the PRIMARY risk the administrator must address? (Select one!)
Explanation
End of Support (EOS) means the vendor will no longer provide security patches, bug fixes, or technical support. The primary risk is that known and future vulnerabilities will remain unpatched, leaving systems exposed to exploitation and potentially violating compliance requirements in regulated industries such as PCI DSS and HIPAA. The inability to purchase the OS describes End of Life (EOL), not EOS. Existing VMs do not automatically shut down when an OS reaches EOS. Hypervisors do not enforce OS support status and will continue running VMs regardless of whether the guest OS is supported.
2. A cloud engineer at Fabrikam is implementing a log management solution to meet compliance requirements. The company processes payment card data and must comply with PCI DSS v4.0. The engineer needs to configure log retention policies that meet the standard's requirements. Which log retention configuration satisfies PCI DSS v4.0? (Select one!)
Explanation
PCI DSS v4.0 requires that audit trail history is retained for at least 12 months, with a minimum of the most recent 90 days immediately available for analysis. This means logs from the last 90 days must be quickly accessible without retrieval delays, while older logs (up to 12 months total) can be stored in less immediately accessible storage such as archive tiers. Retaining logs for only 30 days with immediate access does not meet the 90-day immediate access requirement. Retaining for 60 days with immediate access also falls short of the 90-day requirement and 6 months total is below the 12-month minimum. Retaining all logs for 7 years with immediate access far exceeds PCI DSS requirements and would be unnecessarily expensive, though it would satisfy frameworks like SOX that require 7-year retention.
3. Adatum Corporation is designing a cloud architecture for a new application. The development team wants to focus solely on writing application code without managing servers, operating systems, or middleware. They need automatic scaling and want to pay only for the compute time consumed during code execution. Which cloud service model best meets these requirements? (Select one!)
Explanation
Function as a Service (FaaS) is the correct answer because it provides truly serverless, event-driven computing where developers write individual functions without managing any infrastructure, operating systems, or middleware. FaaS automatically scales based on demand and charges only when functions execute, meeting the pay-per-execution requirement. While PaaS also abstracts infrastructure and lets developers focus on code, it still involves deploying and managing full applications rather than individual functions, and pricing is typically based on provisioned resources rather than per-execution. IaaS requires managing virtual machines, operating systems, and middleware. SaaS provides complete applications but does not allow custom code development.
4. Tailspin Toys is deploying a mission-critical payment processing application that handles $2 million in daily transactions. The deployment team needs to release a new version with zero downtime and the ability to instantly roll back if issues are detected in production. Budget is not a primary concern due to the revenue impact of any disruption. Which deployment strategy is MOST appropriate? (Select one!)
Explanation
Blue-green deployment maintains two identical production environments. The current version runs in the blue environment while the new version is deployed to the green environment. Once validated, traffic is switched instantly from blue to green. If issues are detected, traffic can be immediately routed back to the blue environment, providing instant rollback. This approach guarantees zero downtime. In-place deployment requires a maintenance window, causing downtime that is unacceptable for a system processing $2 million daily. Rolling deployment updates instances incrementally, but rollback is slow because each instance must be individually reverted, and during the rollout, both old and new versions run simultaneously, which can cause compatibility issues with payment processing. Canary deployment gradually shifts traffic and is better suited for frequent, lower-risk updates where the goal is to test with a small subset of users before full rollout. It does not provide the instant, full-environment rollback capability that blue-green offers.
5. Northwind Traders' cloud engineer is troubleshooting an IPsec site-to-site VPN that fails to establish a connection between their on-premises data center and cloud VPC. The engineer has confirmed that IKE Phase 1 negotiation completes successfully, but the tunnel fails during Phase 2. Which parameters should the engineer verify to resolve the Phase 2 failure? (Select two!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
IKE Phase 2 negotiates the IPsec Security Associations that protect actual data traffic. The encryption and hashing algorithms specified in the IPsec transform set must match on both sides for Phase 2 to succeed. Additionally, if Perfect Forward Secrecy is enabled, the Diffie-Hellman group used for PFS key exchange must also match between both endpoints. IKE version and pre-shared key matching are Phase 1 parameters, and since Phase 1 has already completed successfully, these are not the issue. UDP port 500 is used for IKE Phase 1 negotiation, which has already succeeded. BGP autonomous system numbers are routing protocol parameters unrelated to IPsec tunnel establishment.
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