CompTIA • SY0-701
CompTIA Security+ validates core cybersecurity skills needed to assess enterprise security posture, implement security solutions, and monitor and respond to security incidents across hybrid environments including cloud, mobile, and IoT.
Questions
700
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
750/900
Difficulty
AssociateLast Updated
Mar 2026
CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) is a cybersecurity certification that validates core competencies required for IT security roles and government/DoD 8570-compliant positions. The exam assesses professionals' ability to assess enterprise security posture, implement security controls, and respond to security incidents across hybrid environments including cloud, mobile, and IoT infrastructure. Security+ represents a fundamental credential demonstrating practical knowledge in cryptography, access controls, threat management, security architecture, and incident response—making it a prerequisite for advancement in cybersecurity careers.
CompTIA Security+ targets IT professionals transitioning into cybersecurity roles, including systems administrators, network administrators, IT support specialists, and helpdesk technicians. The certification aligns with DoD 8570 work roles such as cyber defense analysts, incident responders, vulnerability analysts, and security engineers. It serves candidates with 1-2 years of IT experience seeking to formalize their cybersecurity knowledge and government contractors requiring federal compliance certifications. Security+ is ideal for career changers entering cybersecurity and professionals supporting larger organizations' security operations.
CompTIA recommends CompTIA Network+ certification and a minimum of two years of hands-on experience working in a security or systems administrator role. While Network+ is strongly recommended, candidates with deep IT operations or system administration background without formal Network+ may attempt the exam. Practical experience managing security tools, responding to security incidents, or working in IT support roles significantly improves exam readiness. Familiarity with networking concepts (TCP/IP, DNS, firewalls) and basic system administration is essential.
The Security+ exam (SY0-701) contains a maximum of 90 questions combining multiple-choice and performance-based (hands-on simulation) questions. The exam duration is 90 minutes. A passing score of 750 is required on a scale of 100-900, equivalent to approximately 83% correct. The exam is delivered through Pearson VUE testing centers and online proctored environments. It is available in English, Japanese, Portuguese, Spanish, and Thai. The exam was launched November 7, 2023, and is estimated to retire in 2026 (standard three-year lifecycle). Performance-based questions test practical skills such as analyzing security scenarios, identifying vulnerabilities, and recommending mitigations.
Security+ certification leads directly to cybersecurity career advancement with immediate salary impact. Entry-level cybersecurity roles start at $50,000-$70,000 annually; professionals with 3-5 years of Security+-validated experience earn $70,000-$100,000, while senior security analysts and specialists command $90,000-$150,000+. Common Security+-eligible positions include SOC Analyst ($78,000), IT Security Specialist ($90,000), Cybersecurity Analyst ($85,000), and Systems Administrator ($80,000). Security+ is DoD 8570-compliant, opening federal contractor and government positions often requiring it as a baseline credential. The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics projects 28.5% growth for information security analyst roles through 2034, significantly above average occupational growth. CyberSeek data shows only 83 cybersecurity workers per 100 available cybersecurity jobs, indicating strong demand. Stacking additional certifications (CySA+, PenTest+) alongside Security+ increases salary potential by $8,000-$25,000 annually, establishing a foundation for continuous advancement into management and specialized security roles.
5 sample questions with correct answers and explanations. Start a practice session to test yourself across all 700 questions.
1. Litware Inc.'s security team is reviewing their vulnerability management program after discovering that a critical vulnerability was present in a production system for 47 days before remediation. The CISO wants to formalize response timelines based on CVSS scores. A vulnerability scanning report shows four findings: a CVSS score of 9.8 on an internet-facing web server, a CVSS score of 7.2 on an internal application server, a CVSS score of 5.1 on a development workstation, and a CVSS score of 3.4 on a non-networked test system. Which finding requires immediate remediation according to CVSS severity rating thresholds, and what defines the critical severity band? (Select two!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
Under the CVSS scoring framework, the Critical severity band encompasses scores from 9.0 to 10.0. Findings in this range require immediate remediation — typically defined as within 24 to 72 hours depending on organizational policy — due to the combination of high exploitability and severe impact. The CVSS 9.8 finding on the internet-facing web server falls squarely in the Critical band and demands the fastest response, particularly given its exposure to external threats. A CVSS score of 8.0 does not define the critical threshold; the High severity band spans 7.0 to 8.9, meaning the 7.2 finding is classified as High and warrants quick patching but not the same urgency as Critical findings. The 5.1 finding falls in the Medium band (4.0 to 6.9), requiring near-term patching but not immediate action. The 3.4 finding is Low (0.1 to 3.9), allowing scheduled remediation. Correct prioritization based on CVSS thresholds is fundamental to effective vulnerability management and enables organizations to allocate limited patching resources to the highest-risk findings first.
2. Northwind's physical security team is installing sensors in their data center that can detect motion through walls and in complete darkness by measuring changes in electromagnetic waves. Which sensor type are they deploying? (Select one!)
Explanation
Microwave sensors emit electromagnetic waves in the microwave frequency range and detect motion by measuring frequency changes in reflected waves using the Doppler effect. They can penetrate walls and work in complete darkness, making them ideal for wide-area coverage. Infrared sensors detect heat signatures and cannot see through walls or work effectively through barriers. Pressure-sensitive sensors require physical contact with a surface and cannot detect motion through walls. Ultrasonic sensors use sound waves which are affected by obstacles and do not penetrate walls effectively compared to microwave technology.
3. A manufacturing company operates industrial control systems that manage physical production equipment. During a routine security review, the team discovers that the ICS vendor requires six months of testing before approving any patch deployment to ensure production stability. A critical vulnerability with a CVSS score of 9.8 has been disclosed for the ICS software. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate immediate response given the operational constraints? (Select one!)
Explanation
Industrial control systems operate under the priority hierarchy of Safety first, then Availability, then Integrity, then Confidentiality, which is the inverse of typical IT environments. Vendor-approved patching requirements exist because unauthorized patches can cause production equipment to behave unpredictably and create physical safety hazards. The appropriate response is to implement network segmentation to isolate the ICS from other network segments, apply compensating controls such as application allow listing and enhanced monitoring, and formally document the exception while awaiting vendor-validated patches. Applying the patch immediately despite vendor requirements risks causing equipment malfunctions or safety incidents that could be more damaging than the vulnerability itself. Simply accepting the risk without implementing any compensating controls is inappropriate for a CVSS 9.8 vulnerability. Replacing ICS software arbitrarily ignores the vendor testing requirements and could cause production disruption.
4. Adatum Corporation is deploying a new enterprise wireless network across multiple office locations. The security team requires that all wireless clients authenticate using their existing Active Directory credentials without requiring client certificates on every device. The solution must protect against offline dictionary attacks and provide management frame protection. Which wireless authentication method should be implemented? (Select one!)
Explanation
WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X and PEAP-MSCHAPv2 meets all the stated requirements. PEAP does not require client-side certificates, allowing existing Active Directory username and password credentials to be used for authentication. WPA3-Enterprise mandates Management Frame Protection (MFP), which prevents deauthentication and disassociation attacks. PEAP-MSCHAPv2 authenticates against Active Directory through a RADIUS server, making it compatible with existing infrastructure. WPA2-Personal uses a pre-shared key and does not integrate with Active Directory credentials, nor does it resist offline dictionary attacks when the PSK is captured. EAP-TLS provides the highest wireless security but requires client-side certificates on every device, which contradicts the stated constraint. WPA3-Personal with SAE protects against offline dictionary attacks and provides forward secrecy, but it is a personal mode using a shared passphrase and does not integrate with Active Directory for per-user authentication.
5. Adatum's security team is evaluating their vulnerability scanning program. The team currently performs monthly scans using an account with limited permissions, which can only see exposed network ports and banner information. The compliance team requires that scans also identify installed software versions, missing patches, and misconfigured local security settings on servers. Which of the following changes to the scanning approach would satisfy the compliance requirement? (Select one!)
Explanation
Credentialed scanning authenticates to target systems using valid administrative credentials, enabling the scanner to perform deep inspection of installed software inventory, patch status, local configuration settings, registry values, running services, and security policy compliance. This internal view is required to identify missing patches and misconfigurations that are not visible through unauthenticated network probing. Increasing scan frequency using the same limited-permission account would produce more of the same surface-level data but would not reveal patch status or local configurations that require authenticated access. Passive scanning analyzes existing network traffic and cannot query system configuration details that require direct authenticated interaction with the target. Agent-based scanners can also provide deep visibility and are a valid alternative or complement to credentialed network scanning, but between the two options for fulfilling the compliance requirement, credentialed scanning is the direct answer to what is currently missing.
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