The Open Group · OGEA-102
Validates an individual's ability to analyze and apply the TOGAF Standard to developing, sustaining, and using an Enterprise Architecture in real-world scenarios. Builds on Part 1 foundations by assessing higher-order cognitive skills including ADM tailoring, stakeholder management, and architectural decision-making.
Practice Questions
600
≈ 10 practice exams
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
60%
Difficulty
ProfessionalLast Updated
Jun 2026
Use this OGEA-102 practice exam to prepare for TOGAF® Enterprise Architecture Part 2 Exam (OGEA-102) with realistic questions, detailed explanations, and focused study modes. The practice bank includes 600 questions for The Open Group OGEA-102, so you can review the exam steadily instead of relying on one long cram session.
As you practice, pay extra attention to recurring topics such as The Context for Enterprise Architecture, Stakeholder Management, Phase A – Architecture Vision (Starting Point), Architecture Development (ADM Phases B–D), and Implementing the Architecture (ADM Phases E–F). Start with short sessions to identify weak areas, then move into timed quizzes once your accuracy is consistent.
The explanations are especially useful when you want to connect exam wording to the responsibilities and scenarios described in the official certification guidance. Use the free preview first, then unlock the full question bank when you are ready to build a complete study routine.
The TOGAF® Enterprise Architecture Part 2 Exam (OGEA-102) validates a candidate's ability to analyze and apply the TOGAF Standard—specifically its 10th Edition—to real-world enterprise architecture scenarios. Unlike the foundational Part 1 exam, which tests knowledge and comprehension, Part 2 operates at Bloom's taxonomy Levels 3 and 4, assessing application and analysis. Candidates must demonstrate higher-order cognitive skills including ADM tailoring, stakeholder management, governance decision-making, and architectural change management in contextual scenarios.
Successful completion of OGEA-102, combined with a prior Part 1 pass (OGEA-101), awards the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Practitioner qualification. This is an open-book examination—candidates have access to an integrated electronic copy of the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Body of Knowledge via a reference button within the exam interface, reinforcing that the test rewards reasoning and application over memorization. Certification is version-specific and does not expire, requiring no renewal.
OGEA-102 is designed for working professionals who already hold the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Foundation qualification and wish to advance to Practitioner level. Ideal candidates include enterprise architects, solution architects, business architects, IT strategists, and senior technology consultants who are actively involved in developing, governing, or sustaining enterprise architectures within their organizations.
This exam is particularly relevant for professionals engaged in large-scale digital transformations, multi-domain architecture programs, or roles requiring ADM tailoring, stakeholder alignment, and architecture governance. Those pursuing titles such as Chief Enterprise Architect, Lead Architect, or IT Director will find the Practitioner credential a recognized differentiator in hiring and promotion decisions.
There is one mandatory prerequisite: candidates must hold the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Foundation qualification before sitting OGEA-102. This can be achieved by passing the OGEA-101 Part 1 exam prior to (or on the same day at the same test center as) the Part 2 exam. Alternatively, both parts can be attempted together via the combined OGEA-103 exam.
In terms of recommended experience, candidates benefit from hands-on familiarity with the TOGAF ADM lifecycle, practical exposure to enterprise architecture governance frameworks, and experience working with stakeholders across business and IT functions. A working understanding of the TOGAF Standard 10th Edition—particularly its ADM phases (Preliminary through H), Architecture Repository concepts, and Architecture Capability Framework—is strongly advised before sitting this exam.
OGEA-102 consists of 8 scenario-based, complex multiple-choice questions. Each question presents a realistic enterprise architecture situation and offers four possible responses, only one of which may be selected. Answers are gradient-scored: the best answer earns 5 points, the second-best earns 3 points, the third-best earns 1 point, and the distractor earns 0 points. The maximum achievable score is 40 points, and the passing threshold is 24 points (60%).
The exam is 90 minutes in duration and is supervised. It can be taken at an Authorized Examination Provider test center or via online proctoring. It is an open-book exam—an integrated electronic copy of the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Body of Knowledge is accessible within the exam interface via a reference button. If a candidate fails, a one-month waiting period is required before reattempting.
Earning the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Practitioner credential positions professionals for senior roles commanding premium compensation. Enterprise Architects in the US with TOGAF certification typically earn between $130,000 and $180,000 annually, with Solutions Architects and Business Architects ranging from $110,000 to $160,000. Certified professionals consistently outperform non-certified peers in salary by an estimated 20–35%, and report faster progression into leadership positions such as Chief Enterprise Architect, IT Director, or CTO.
The Practitioner qualification is recognized globally across industries including financial services, healthcare, government, telecommunications, and consulting—sectors where structured enterprise architecture governance is a compliance and operational imperative. Compared to alternative frameworks such as Zachman or FEAF, TOGAF remains the most widely adopted enterprise architecture framework worldwide, giving OGEA-102 holders a credential with broad employer recognition. Professionals who complete the certification through an accredited training provider are also eligible for The Open Group's Applied Practitioner badge, further distinguishing their practical competency.
5 sample questions with answers and explanations. The full bank has 600 questions, enough for 10 full-length practice exams.
Preview — answers shown1. A healthcare provider scores its patient engagement transformation readiness as follows: Need 5, Funding 4, Business Case 4, Vision 3, Leadership 2, Governance 2, Accountability 2, Desire 3, IT Capacity 3, and Enterprise Change Capacity 2. The sponsor says the high need and funding scores justify proceeding with the original enterprise-wide scope. What should the architect recommend? (Select one!)
Explanation
Business Transformation Readiness Assessment considers multiple factors, not just need and funding. Weak leadership, governance, accountability, and change capacity should influence Phase A scope, risks, mitigation, and transition assumptions.
2. An Architecture Board reviews a Phase A pack and finds a well-developed Stakeholder Map, a stakeholder grid with concerns and viewpoints, and draft Architecture Vision content. However, there is no documented plan showing who will communicate trade-off decisions, how often affected groups will receive updates, or how objections will be captured and fed back into architecture work. Which TWO conclusions are MOST appropriate? (Select two!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
Phase A includes early stakeholder engagement and communication planning. A Stakeholder Map or grid helps analyze stakeholders, but it does not replace a Communications Plan that defines message, timing, method, owner, and feedback handling.
3. A target architecture mandates a common customer-notification service for all outbound communications. A delivery team for a regulated product cannot use the service in the first release because a country-specific gateway certification will not be completed before the statutory launch date. The team proposes a time-limited alternate integration, additional monitoring, a retirement date, and sponsor acceptance of the risk. What Architecture Board action is MOST appropriate? (Select one!)
Explanation
The scenario describes a known deviation from an approved architecture standard with a proposed mitigation and expiry path. That is best handled as a dispensation decision by the Architecture Board or equivalent governance body. The other options either blur the distinction between a controlled waiver and an architecture change, delegate architecture compliance authority too narrowly, or weaken the approved requirement without proper governance.
4. A government agency is preparing for a formal review at the end of Phase D. The review pack includes an Architecture Definition Document, an Architecture Requirements Specification, a draft Architecture Roadmap, candidate roadmap components, and a proposed template for Architecture Contracts. Reviewers ask which content must be verified as part of the Architecture Definition Document itself, rather than treated only as a related downstream deliverable. Which THREE items should the architect confirm are in the Architecture Definition Document? (Select three!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
The Architecture Definition Document contains the architecture definition, including baseline and target descriptions, gap analysis, and architecture requirements. The Architecture Roadmap, candidate roadmap components, and Architecture Contracts are closely related TOGAF work products, but they are not the same thing as the core ADD content being verified here.
5. A logistics enterprise is reviewing three residual risks before approving a transition architecture. Risk A is marginal and frequent, Risk B is critical and seldom, and Risk C is critical and occasional. The published risk matrix places Risk A and Risk B in the same priority band, while Risk C is one band higher. The business sponsor argues that Risk B should still be handled before Risk C because the impact label is the same and Risk B relates to a politically visible reporting process. Which response BEST applies the risk priority approach? (Select one!)
Explanation
The matrix should first be used to combine residual severity and frequency. Where risks fall into different priority bands, the higher band normally receives stronger immediate attention. Where risks fall into the same band, professional judgment should consider business impact, stakeholder concern, feasibility of mitigation, and governance thresholds rather than ignoring the matrix or relying on one dimension alone.
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