The Open Group · OGEA-102
Validates an individual's ability to analyze and apply the TOGAF Standard to developing, sustaining, and using an Enterprise Architecture in real-world scenarios. Builds on Part 1 foundations by assessing higher-order cognitive skills including ADM tailoring, stakeholder management, and architectural decision-making.
Practice Questions
600
≈ 10 practice exams
Duration
90 minutes
Passing Score
60%
Difficulty
ProfessionalLast Updated
Jun 2026
Use this OGEA-102 practice exam to prepare for TOGAF® Enterprise Architecture Part 2 Exam (OGEA-102) with realistic questions, detailed explanations, and focused study modes. The practice bank includes 600 questions for The Open Group OGEA-102, so you can review the exam steadily instead of relying on one long cram session.
As you practice, pay extra attention to recurring topics such as The Context for Enterprise Architecture, Stakeholder Management, Phase A – Architecture Vision (Starting Point), Architecture Development (ADM Phases B–D), and Implementing the Architecture (ADM Phases E–F). Start with short sessions to identify weak areas, then move into timed quizzes once your accuracy is consistent.
The explanations are especially useful when you want to connect exam wording to the responsibilities and scenarios described in the official certification guidance. Use the free preview first, then unlock the full question bank when you are ready to build a complete study routine.
The TOGAF® Enterprise Architecture Part 2 Exam (OGEA-102) validates a candidate's ability to analyze and apply the TOGAF Standard—specifically its 10th Edition—to real-world enterprise architecture scenarios. Unlike the foundational Part 1 exam, which tests knowledge and comprehension, Part 2 operates at Bloom's taxonomy Levels 3 and 4, assessing application and analysis. Candidates must demonstrate higher-order cognitive skills including ADM tailoring, stakeholder management, governance decision-making, and architectural change management in contextual scenarios.
Successful completion of OGEA-102, combined with a prior Part 1 pass (OGEA-101), awards the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Practitioner qualification. This is an open-book examination—candidates have access to an integrated electronic copy of the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Body of Knowledge via a reference button within the exam interface, reinforcing that the test rewards reasoning and application over memorization. Certification is version-specific and does not expire, requiring no renewal.
OGEA-102 is designed for working professionals who already hold the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Foundation qualification and wish to advance to Practitioner level. Ideal candidates include enterprise architects, solution architects, business architects, IT strategists, and senior technology consultants who are actively involved in developing, governing, or sustaining enterprise architectures within their organizations.
This exam is particularly relevant for professionals engaged in large-scale digital transformations, multi-domain architecture programs, or roles requiring ADM tailoring, stakeholder alignment, and architecture governance. Those pursuing titles such as Chief Enterprise Architect, Lead Architect, or IT Director will find the Practitioner credential a recognized differentiator in hiring and promotion decisions.
There is one mandatory prerequisite: candidates must hold the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Foundation qualification before sitting OGEA-102. This can be achieved by passing the OGEA-101 Part 1 exam prior to (or on the same day at the same test center as) the Part 2 exam. Alternatively, both parts can be attempted together via the combined OGEA-103 exam.
In terms of recommended experience, candidates benefit from hands-on familiarity with the TOGAF ADM lifecycle, practical exposure to enterprise architecture governance frameworks, and experience working with stakeholders across business and IT functions. A working understanding of the TOGAF Standard 10th Edition—particularly its ADM phases (Preliminary through H), Architecture Repository concepts, and Architecture Capability Framework—is strongly advised before sitting this exam.
OGEA-102 consists of 8 scenario-based, complex multiple-choice questions. Each question presents a realistic enterprise architecture situation and offers four possible responses, only one of which may be selected. Answers are gradient-scored: the best answer earns 5 points, the second-best earns 3 points, the third-best earns 1 point, and the distractor earns 0 points. The maximum achievable score is 40 points, and the passing threshold is 24 points (60%).
The exam is 90 minutes in duration and is supervised. It can be taken at an Authorized Examination Provider test center or via online proctoring. It is an open-book exam—an integrated electronic copy of the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Body of Knowledge is accessible within the exam interface via a reference button. If a candidate fails, a one-month waiting period is required before reattempting.
Earning the TOGAF Enterprise Architecture Practitioner credential positions professionals for senior roles commanding premium compensation. Enterprise Architects in the US with TOGAF certification typically earn between $130,000 and $180,000 annually, with Solutions Architects and Business Architects ranging from $110,000 to $160,000. Certified professionals consistently outperform non-certified peers in salary by an estimated 20–35%, and report faster progression into leadership positions such as Chief Enterprise Architect, IT Director, or CTO.
The Practitioner qualification is recognized globally across industries including financial services, healthcare, government, telecommunications, and consulting—sectors where structured enterprise architecture governance is a compliance and operational imperative. Compared to alternative frameworks such as Zachman or FEAF, TOGAF remains the most widely adopted enterprise architecture framework worldwide, giving OGEA-102 holders a credential with broad employer recognition. Professionals who complete the certification through an accredited training provider are also eligible for The Open Group's Applied Practitioner badge, further distinguishing their practical competency.
5 sample questions with answers and explanations. The full bank has 600 questions, enough for 10 full-length practice exams.
Preview — answers shown1. A regulated insurer is extending its architecture content model. The Architecture Board wants to represent obligations in supplier agreements, internal controls, architecture principles, regulatory standards, and measurable objectives tied to compliance outcomes. Which metamodel extension is MOST directly aligned to these entities? (Select one!)
Explanation
The Governance extension includes entities such as Contract, Control, Objective, Principle, and Standard. Infrastructure focuses on platform and infrastructure services, Data focuses on data-related entities, and Services focuses on service quality, service contracts, and service-level concepts.
2. A government benefits platform is reviewed against an approved architecture specification. The implementation includes all relevant evidence-capture features, but it uses a different user-interface workflow and different internal component names that were explicitly permitted as implementation variations. No required feature is missing. Which compliance classification BEST fits this finding? (Select one!)
Explanation
Compliant is the best classification when all relevant features are implemented and the differences are permitted variations. Conformant requires implementation exactly as specified. Fully Conformant implies no gaps or variations. Non-Conformant would apply if the implementation failed to comply with the specification.
3. A digital identity implementation is assessed against an approved target architecture. The specification requires a defined identity-proofing sequence, audit records, and service interfaces. The implementation includes every relevant required feature exactly as specified, with no approved variation, omission, or additional interpretation needed to meet the specification. Which category should the review team apply? (Select one!)
Explanation
Conformant is the best category when all relevant features are implemented exactly as specified. Compliant allows permitted variation. Consistent indicates alignment without direct reliance on the specification. Irrelevant applies when a specification feature is not applicable to the implementation being reviewed.
4. A bank's Phase A readiness assessment for payments modernization produces mixed results. There is a compelling market need and a strong business case. Funding is likely but not yet committed across all regions. Executive sponsorship is strong at group level, but regional leadership commitment is uneven. Decision forums exist, but they lack authority to resolve cross-product conflicts. Which TWO readiness factors are most directly weak? (Select two!)
Multiple correct answersExplanation
Uneven regional commitment points directly to leadership readiness, and decision forums without authority point directly to governance readiness. Funding has some uncertainty, but the scenario's most direct weaknesses are leadership fragmentation and ineffective governance. Need and business case are described as strong.
5. A pharmaceutical company has implemented a laboratory data platform against an approved architecture specification. The implementation includes every relevant data lineage, retention, interface, and access-control feature. However, for one reporting interface the team used an alternate approved protocol profile that the specification explicitly permits for regulated sites. Which compliance category BEST describes the implementation? (Select one!)
Explanation
Compliant is the best category when all relevant features are implemented and permitted variations are used. Conformant implies exact implementation as specified, Fully Conformant implies no gaps or variations, and Irrelevant applies when a specification feature is not applicable to the implementation.
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