Microsoft · SC-200
Validates expertise in investigating, responding to, and mitigating threats using Microsoft Sentinel, Microsoft Defender XDR, and Microsoft Defender for Cloud.
Practice Questions
599
≈ 11 practice exams
Duration
100 minutes
Passing Score
700/1000
Difficulty
AssociateLast Updated
Jan 2026
Use this SC-200 practice exam to prepare for Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate (SC-200) with realistic questions, detailed explanations, and focused study modes. The practice bank includes 599 questions for Microsoft SC-200, so you can review the exam steadily instead of relying on one long cram session.
As you practice, pay extra attention to recurring topics such as Manage a security operations environment, Configure protections and detections, Manage incident response, Manage security threats, and Microsoft Sentinel. Start with short sessions to identify weak areas, then move into timed quizzes once your accuracy is consistent.
The explanations are especially useful when you want to connect exam wording to the responsibilities and scenarios described in the official certification guidance. Use the free preview first, then unlock the full question bank when you are ready to build a complete study routine.
The Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate (SC-200) validates a practitioner's ability to reduce organizational risk by investigating, responding to, and hunting for threats across cloud and on-premises environments. The certification covers the full Microsoft security operations stack, including Microsoft Defender XDR, Microsoft Sentinel, Microsoft Defender for Cloud, Microsoft Security Copilot, and third-party security integrations. Candidates demonstrate competency in performing triage, responding to incidents, executing threat hunts with Kusto Query Language (KQL), and mitigating risk through exposure management.
Last updated on January 22, 2026, the exam reflects current platform capabilities including automatic attack disruption, Microsoft Purview data loss prevention integration, Microsoft Entra ID identity investigations, and Security Copilot promptbook creation. The certification spans both reactive security operations—such as remediating ransomware and business email compromise—and proactive practices including behavioral analytics, MITRE ATT&CK coverage analysis, and custom detection rule authoring in Microsoft Sentinel.
This certification is designed for security operations analysts working in Security Operations Centers (SOC) who are responsible for monitoring, triaging, and remediating threats using Microsoft's security platform. It suits professionals in roles such as SOC Analyst (Tier 1–3), Threat Hunter, Incident Responder, and Cloud Security Analyst who operate day-to-day within Microsoft Defender and Sentinel environments.
Candidates typically have hands-on experience with Microsoft 365 and Azure services, and are comfortable working across Windows, Linux, and mobile operating systems. IT administrators and security engineers who manage Microsoft security tooling and are looking to validate their operational skills—as well as experienced professionals transitioning into dedicated security roles—will find this certification directly aligned with their work.
Microsoft does not enforce formal prerequisites for SC-200, but recommends that candidates have working familiarity with Microsoft 365, Azure cloud services, and common operating systems (Windows, Linux, mobile). Practical exposure to at least one of the core platform tools—Microsoft Sentinel, Microsoft Defender XDR, or Microsoft Defender for Cloud—is strongly advisable before sitting the exam.
Candidates with no prior security background should consider starting with SC-900 (Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals) to build foundational knowledge. Approximately one year of hands-on experience in security monitoring or incident response, combined with working knowledge of KQL for log querying, is the realistic baseline for passing the exam without excessive remedial study.
SC-200 is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE, available online or at a testing center. Candidates are allotted 100 minutes to complete the assessment. The exam may include a variety of question types: multiple choice, multi-select, drag-and-drop, and interactive lab-style components that simulate real tasks within Microsoft security portals. A passing score of 700 out of 1000 is required.
The exam is available in English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified and Traditional), Korean, French, German, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), and Italian. Candidates taking a non-English version may request an additional 30 minutes. The certification is valid for 12 months and can be renewed at no cost by passing a free online renewal assessment on Microsoft Learn.
SC-200 certified professionals are positioned for roles including SOC Analyst, Threat Intelligence Analyst, Cloud Security Engineer, and Incident Responder at organizations running Microsoft's security stack—a category that includes the majority of enterprise environments globally. In the United States, security operations analysts with this certification typically earn between $107,000 and $145,000 annually, with variation based on seniority, industry, and geographic location. The credential is recognized by the U.S. Department of Defense COOL program and is aligned with roles requiring hands-on SIEM and XDR competency.
Compared to vendor-neutral alternatives such as CompTIA CySA+ or EC-Council CND, SC-200 offers deeper platform-specific validation that is directly applicable when an employer's security stack is Microsoft-centric. The certification is renewable annually at no cost via Microsoft Learn, keeping credential holders current as the platform evolves. With Microsoft Sentinel and Defender XDR adoption continuing to grow across enterprise and government sectors, demand for SC-200 certified analysts remains strong.
5 sample questions with answers and explanations. The full bank has 599 questions, enough for 11 full-length practice exams.
Preview — answers shown1. An attacker gains access to a web server and, instead of stealing data, modifies the website's code to redirect all visitors to a malicious site. What core principle of information security has been violated?
Explanation
This is a violation of Integrity. The principle of integrity ensures that data is trustworthy and has not been modified in an unauthorized or undetected manner. By changing the website's code, the attacker has directly violated the integrity of the web application. Confidentiality would be violated if they stole data. Availability would be violated if they took the site offline.
2. An analyst is investigating an incident that involves a compromised user account. To understand the full scope, the analyst needs to identify every device the user logged into and every file they accessed in the 24 hours preceding the alert. What are these associated users, devices, and files called within the context of an incident?
Explanation
These associated items are called entities. An entity is a piece of data, such as a user account, a host, an IP address, or a file hash, that is extracted from the logs and associated with an alert or incident. Mapping and analyzing entities is a critical part of an investigation as it helps the analyst understand the relationships between different pieces of evidence and trace the path of an attack.
3. LegacyMigration Corp has been using individual legacy Microsoft Defender connectors for different security products but wants to modernize their approach. They need to understand the benefits of migrating to the unified Defender XDR connector approach. What advantage does the modern Defender XDR connector provide over legacy individual connectors?
Explanation
Unified Defender XDR connector provides integrated incident correlation and streamlined management is the correct answer. The modern Defender XDR connector approach provides better incident correlation across different Defender workloads, simplified management, unified alerting, and integrated investigation capabilities compared to managing multiple individual legacy connectors. Legacy connectors don't provide better performance, the unified approach typically supports more integrated scenarios, and modern connectors are designed to support both new deployments and migrations from legacy approaches.
4. A security policy is not relevant to a specific set of servers in a development environment. To prevent the non-compliance of these servers from negatively impacting the organization's overall secure score, what is the best course of action?
Explanation
Creating an exemption is the correct procedure. Most cloud security posture management (CSPM) tools allow you to create exemptions for a specific recommendation on a specific resource or resource group. This tells the system that you have reviewed the finding and have accepted the risk or deemed it not applicable. The exempted resources will no longer count against your secure score for that specific control.
5. An attacker has successfully compromised an on-premises user account. They now want to access cloud resources. What is the security model that assumes this type of breach is possible and requires verification for every access request, regardless of whether the user is on the corporate network or not?
Explanation
This is the core principle of the Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust assumes that the traditional network perimeter is no longer a reliable boundary and that breaches are inevitable. Therefore, it operates on the principle of 'never trust, always verify'. Every access request, regardless of its origin, must be explicitly verified through strong authentication, device health checks, and least-privilege access policies.
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