EC-Council • CSA
Validates foundational and advanced skills in Security Operations Center monitoring and analysis, covering SOC operations, SIEM deployment and use cases, log management, incident triaging, indicators of compromise investigation, threat hunting, and malware analysis.
Questions
570
Duration
180 minutes
Passing Score
70%
Difficulty
AssociateLast Updated
Feb 2026
The Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) — exam code 312-39 — is an associate-level credential awarded by EC-Council that validates a candidate's ability to perform Tier I and Tier II Security Operations Center (SOC) functions. The certification covers the full SOC workflow, from understanding the People, Process, and Technology framework of SOC operations to deploying and tuning SIEM platforms, managing centralized log pipelines, triaging alerts, investigating indicators of compromise (IoCs), and executing incident response procedures. The curriculum spans over 350 SIEM use cases across application, network, insider-threat, and compliance scenarios, and incorporates AI-enabled capabilities for alert prioritization, threat detection automation, and SIEM rule generation.
The CSA is the only SOC analyst credential that maps 100% to the NIST/NICE Framework under the Protect and Defend (PR) work role of Cyber Defense Analysis (CDA). It was recently updated to CSA v2, adding modules on cloud security operations (AWS, Azure, GCP), forensic investigation and malware analysis within a SOC context, and threat hunting using modern tools such as Velociraptor, YARA, and UEBA platforms. Candidates gain hands-on experience with industry-standard platforms including Splunk, the ELK Stack, OSSIM, and Log360, preparing them to operate effectively in real-world SOC environments from day one.
The CSA is primarily designed for current and aspiring Tier I and Tier II SOC analysts seeking to formalize and advance their operational skills. It is equally well-suited for network administrators, network security engineers, and cybersecurity analysts who want to transition into a dedicated security operations role. IT professionals working in network defense, security monitoring, or incident handling — including federal employees and government contractors with NICE Framework responsibilities — will find the credential directly applicable to their daily work.
Candidates do not need prior security certifications to pursue the CSA, but a foundational understanding of networking concepts, operating systems, and basic cybersecurity principles is strongly recommended. Professionals who have completed EC-Council's Network Defense Essentials (NDE) or Certified Network Defender (CND), or who hold equivalent knowledge, are well-positioned to succeed.
EC-Council does not mandate formal prerequisites for the CSA exam, making it accessible to candidates early in their cybersecurity careers. However, EC-Council recommends that candidates possess a working knowledge of networking fundamentals (TCP/IP, protocols, network devices), basic operating system concepts for both Windows and Linux environments, and a general understanding of information security concepts before attempting the exam.
Candidates who complete EC-Council's official CSA training program — available in instructor-led, online self-paced, and live-online formats — are best prepared for the exam, as the course is aligned directly to the exam blueprint. Practical familiarity with at least one SIEM platform (such as Splunk or the ELK Stack) and exposure to log analysis tools will significantly ease the learning curve for the more heavily weighted domains.
The CSA exam (code 312-39) consists of 100 multiple-choice questions delivered in a proctored format through EC-Council's ECC Exam Centre. Candidates are allotted 180 minutes (3 hours) to complete the exam. A passing score of 70% (70 out of 100 correct) is required to earn the certification. The exam is available as an online proctored test or at an authorized EC-Council testing center.
The exam is aligned to the CSA v2 blueprint, and all questions are mapped to the eight official exam domains. There are no separate practical or lab components required to earn the certification, though EC-Council's official training includes extensive hands-on lab exercises. The exam fee is approximately $250 USD, and the resulting certification is valid for three years, after which holders must earn continuing education credits or retake the exam to maintain the credential.
Earning the CSA credential positions professionals for Tier I and Tier II SOC analyst roles, which are among the most consistently in-demand positions in cybersecurity. SOC analysts in the United States typically earn between $60,000 and $95,000 annually at the entry-to-mid level, with Tier II analysts and those holding recognized credentials commanding salaries toward the higher end of that range. The CSA is recognized by government agencies and federal contractors, and its alignment to the NICE Framework (CDA work role) makes it relevant for public-sector cybersecurity positions that require role-based certifications.
Compared to alternatives such as CompTIA CySA+ or the SANS GIAC GCIA, the CSA is more narrowly focused on SOC operations and SIEM-centric detection workflows, making it a strong choice for professionals whose day-to-day work centers on alert triage and incident monitoring rather than broader threat analysis or network forensics. The CSA is often pursued as a stepping stone toward more advanced EC-Council credentials such as the Certified Incident Handler (E|CIH) or Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst (C|TIA), or toward vendor-specific SIEM certifications from Splunk or Microsoft.
5 sample questions with correct answers and explanations. Start a practice session to test yourself across all 570 questions.
1. A SOC analyst investigates a phishing incident where users received emails with malicious PDF attachments. The analyst uses the Cyber Kill Chain framework to document defensive actions. The email filtering system blocked 95 percent of emails, but 5 percent reached user inboxes. Three users opened the attachments, but EDR prevented payload execution. At which phase was the attack successfully stopped? (Select one!)
Explanation
The attack progressed through Delivery (emails reached inboxes) but was stopped at Exploitation when EDR prevented the payload from executing code on the endpoints. Delivery phase was partially successful since 5 percent of emails reached users. Installation phase was never reached because code execution was prevented. Weaponization occurs before delivery when the attacker creates the malicious payload, which clearly succeeded since functional PDFs were distributed.
2. A security architect designs log retention policies for a financial services organization subject to PCI DSS compliance. The organization processes 500 GB of logs daily from payment processing systems. Which retention strategy meets PCI DSS Requirement 10 while minimizing storage costs? (Select one!)
Explanation
PCI DSS Requirement 10 mandates 12 months minimum retention with 3 months immediately accessible. Storing 3 months in hot storage meets the immediate accessibility requirement, while cold storage for the remaining 9 months satisfies the total 12-month retention at lower cost. Storing all logs in hot storage for 12 months is unnecessarily expensive. Storing only 6 months violates the 12-month minimum retention requirement. The 1-month hot storage option fails to meet the 3-month immediate accessibility requirement.
3. A Tier 2 analyst investigates a security incident where multiple Windows workstations show Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3 occurring between workstations at unusual hours. Event ID 4648 appears on several systems immediately before the Type 3 logons, and all activities use a service account that should only authenticate to database servers. What attack technique is most likely occurring? (Select one!)
Explanation
Event ID 4648 (explicit credential use) followed by Event ID 4624 Logon Type 3 (network logon) between workstations indicates an attacker using stolen service account credentials to move laterally across the network. Type 3 logons between workstations are abnormal as users typically authenticate directly to servers, not peer workstations. Service accounts authenticating interactively or to unauthorized systems signals compromise. Pass-the-hash would show similar Type 3 logons but Event 4648 specifically indicates explicit credential usage with RunAs or network mapping with alternate credentials. RDP session hijacking would show Logon Type 10 (RemoteInteractive) not Type 3. Scheduled task persistence would generate Event ID 4698 (task created) and show Logon Type 4 (batch) during execution.
4. A vulnerability management team prioritizes patching decisions using both CVSS scores and EPSS predictions. CVE-2024-5001 has a CVSS score of 9.2 (Critical) with EPSS probability of 2 percent. CVE-2024-5002 has a CVSS score of 7.8 (High) with EPSS probability of 65 percent. Which vulnerability should receive higher priority for immediate patching? (Select one!)
Explanation
CVE-2024-5002 should receive higher priority because EPSS (Exploit Prediction Scoring System) predicts a 65 percent probability of exploitation within 30 days, indicating active or imminent exploitation. Only 2-7 percent of vulnerabilities are ever exploited in practice, making EPSS a critical prioritization factor. While CVE-2024-5001 has higher severity, its 2 percent EPSS score suggests low exploitation likelihood. Effective vulnerability management must balance theoretical impact (CVSS) with real-world threat intelligence (EPSS). Equal priority ignores the substantial difference in exploitation probability. Both vulnerabilities require patching, but exploitation likelihood determines urgency.
5. A network security engineer writes Snort rules to detect SQL injection attacks against web applications. The rule must match HTTP traffic to web servers containing both UNION and SELECT keywords in any case combination, maintaining stateful connection awareness. Which Snort rule syntax correctly implements this detection? (Select one!)
Explanation
The correct rule uses TCP protocol to web servers on port 80, includes flow:to_server,established for stateful connection tracking of client-to-server traffic in established connections, uses two content matches with nocase modifiers for case-insensitive detection, includes required rule options (msg, sid, rev), and uses proper Snort syntax. The UDP protocol option is incorrect because HTTP uses TCP, and it lacks flow tracking. The reversed direction (from_server) monitors responses rather than incoming attack requests. Using IP protocol on port 443 confuses HTTPS with standard HTTP, and single content match misses cases where UNION and SELECT are separated by other characters.
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